
Dibyendu D. answered 05/20/19
Computer Science Ph.D. who loves to teach Computer Science and Maths
To prove, f(A1 ∩ f-1(B2)) = f(A1) ∩ B2
we show that,
f(A1 ∩ f-1(B2)) ⊆ f(A1) ∩ B2 and
f(A1) ∩ B2 ⊆ f(A1 ∩ f-1(B2))
Note that, f-1(B2) = {y : f(y) ∈ B2} ........ (1)
Let, x ∈ f(A1 ∩ f-1(B2))
⇒ there exists y ∈ A1 ∩ f-1(B2) such that f(y) = x
⇒ there exists y such that y ∈ A1 and y ∈ f-1(B2) and f(y) = x
Since y ∈ A1, then x ∈ f(A1)
Similarly, since y ∈ f-1(B2), we have that x ∈ f(f-1(B2)), that is x ∈ B2
Since x ∈ f(A1) and x ∈ B2, we conclude that x ∈ f(A1) ∩ B2
This proves that f(A1 ∩ f-1(B2)) ⊆ f(A1) ∩ B2
Now for the other part of the proof, let x ∈ f(A1) ∩ B2
⇒ x ∈ f(A1) and x ∈ B2
⇒ there exists y ∈ A1 such that f(y) = x and x ∈ B2
⇒ there exists y ∈ A1 such that f(y) ∈ B2 and f(y) = x
⇒ there exists y ∈ A1 such that y ∈ f-1(B2) and f(y) = x [from equation (1)]
⇒ there exists y such that f(y) = x and y ∈ A1 and y ∈ f-1(B2)
⇒ there exists y such that f(y) = x and y ∈ A1 ∩ f-1(B2)
⇒ x ∈ f(A1 ∩ f-1(B2))
This proves that f(A1) ∩ B2 ⊆ f(A1 ∩ f-1(B2))
f(A1 ∩ f-1(B2)) = f(A1) ∩ B2