Roman C. answered 01/30/17
Tutor
5.0
(850)
Masters of Education Graduate with Mathematics Expertise
You have the correct first step. Here is the full derivation.
We know that limx→0 (sin x)/x = 1. This limit is a classic exercise in using the Squeeze Theorem.
Also,
limx→0 (1 - cos x)/x
= limx→0 (1 - cos2 x)/[x(1 + cos x)]
= limx→0 (sin2 x)/[x(1 + cos x)]
= [limx→0 (sin x)/x][limx→0 (sin x)/(1 + cos x)]
= 1·0
= 0
Now use your reduction.
limx→0 (cos(x + π/3) - 1/2)/x
= limx→0 (cos x cos π/3 - sin x sin π/3 - 1/2)/x
= limx→0 ((1/2)cos x - (√3/2)sin x - 1/2)/x
= (-√3/2)limx→0 (sin x)/x - (1/2)limx→0 (1 - cos x)/x
= -√3/2