Alan G. answered 03/18/16
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Is p pi (π)?
The Taylor series for cos x with center 0 (really the Maclaurin series) is
f(0) + f'(0) x + f''(0)/2! x2 + f'''(0)/3! x3 + … , where f(x) = cos x.
Notice:
f(x) = cos x → f(0) = 1
f'(x) = -sin x → f'(0) = 0
f''(x) = -cos x → f''(0) = -1
f'''(x) = sin x → f'''(0) = 0
f(4)(x) = cos x → f(4)(0) = 1
f(5)(0) = 0
f(6)(0) = -1
f(6)(0) = -1
Plug this into the Taylor series:
T6(x) = 1 - x2/2 + x4/24 - x6/720.
If you just need the first four terms (whether they are zero or not, you can remove the last two terms from your answer). What I have given you are the first four nonzero terms.
Plug x = 2π and simplify:
cos 2π ≈ 1 - (2π)2/2 + (2π)4/24 - (2π)6/720 ≈ -39.2566.
This is a TERRIBLE approximation since the actual value for cos 2π is 1. You can estimate the error as 2π - (-39.2566) = 45.539817, which is much too large to be a good estimate. To get a better estimate, you have two options.
1. Use A LOT more terms in the Taylor expansion; or
2. Choose a different center, closer to 2π. This would be less work. A good choice might be a = 2π or if you like to crunch numbers, a = 6 (6 is close to 2π).
You will need to modify these results if all you needed were the first four terms (zero or not).