
Linda P. answered 11/27/17
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It sounds like the two trials are unrelated, in terms of probability of success. In other words, if trial 1 fails, it is no more or less likely that trial 2 will succeed. We also assume there is no other state but success or failure (no "almost" for example).
Since they're unrelated, and neither is given any more weight than the other, I would simply average the projected success rates to find the overall success rate. Then, the failure rate will be 1 - overall success rate. Alternatively, first find the failure rates of each, then average; it doesn't matter which you do first.
I get (40 + 55)/2, or 47.5%. Now do a reality check. My answer is less than 50/50 probability that both will fail. Does that seem reasonable, given the info provided?