
Mark M. answered 12/14/15
Mathematics Teacher - NCLB Highly Qualified

Mark M.
12/14/15
Sean A.
12/14/15

Mark M.
12/15/15
Matt G.
By the reasoning in the other response if you rolled a die 28 times you would only have a 1 in 6 chance to get a 6. On any single day, regardless of the result on another day it is a 1/1000 chance that is correct, but the chance to match in 28 tries would be: (total # of outcomes - total # not matched)/(total number of outcomes) (1000^28-999^28)/(1000^28) = 0.0276 (2.76% chance) Another way to figure it out is the chance you would lose them all. (999/1000)^28 = 0.9724(97.24%). 1 - this result gives you the same 0.0276. For the dice roll example in 28 tries it is a; (6^28-5^28)/(6^28) = 0.994 (99.4% chance that you roll a six)04/25/23
Matt G.
A simpler example, 4 independent dice roles(could do them on different days, doesn't matter). What is the probability that you will get a 6(or whatever number you pick) If you have 4 dice/rolls, the total number of possible results is 6x6x6x6 = 1296. The total results for the rolls that would not include six are 5x5x5x5 = 625. The probability if you roll 4 dice that you will get a six is (1296-625) / 1296 = 0.518. This can also be figured out by the same 1 - the chance to not get the number also 1-((5/6)^4) = 0.518 .04/25/23
Sean A.
12/14/15