I'm assuming you know how to multiply matrices and what a Taylor series is. If not, let me know.
(a) J² just means multiply matrix J by itself, J² = J*J. Similarly, J³=J*J*J etc.
Let's do J² for your matrix:
J²=J*J=(λ, 0, 1, λ)*(λ, 0, 1, λ)=(λ², 0, 2λ, λ²)
Similarly,
J³=J²*J=(λ², 0, 2λ, λ²)*(λ, 0, 1, λ)=(λ³, 0, 3λ², λ³)
J4=J³*J=(λ³, 0, 3λ, λ³)*(λ, 0, 1, λ)=(λ4, 0, 4λ³, λ4)
(b) In part (a), we see a pattern emerging, so we claim
Jn=(λn, 0, nλn-1, λn) for any positive integer n.
The inductive argument goes like this:
1. The statement is true for n=1, because
J1=J=(λ, 0, 1, λ) by definition.
2. Let the statement be true for some arbitrary but fixed n=k:
Jk=(λk, 0, kλk-1, λk)
Then for n=k+1
Jk+1=Jk*J=(λk, 0, kλk-1, λk)* (λ, 0, 1, λ)=(λk+1, 0, (k+1)λk, λk+1).
Therefore, by the principle of mathematical induction, the statement is true for all n=1,2,3,...
(c) The matrix exponential exp(A) of a matrix A is defined as a Taylor series of matrices analogous to the Taylor series of the function et about t=0:
exp(A)= I + A + 1/2! A² + 1/3! A³ + .... =Σ( (1/n!) An, n=0..infinity),
where I is the identity matrix and A0=I.
Therefore,
exp(Jt) = Σ( (1/n!) (Jt)n, n=0..infinity) = Σ( (1/n!) Jntn, n=0..infinity)
For our matrix J=(λ, 0, 1, λ), we showed in part (b) Jn=(λn, 0, nλn-1, λn), so that
exp(Jt) =Σ( (1/n!) (λn, 0, nλn-1, λn) tn, n=0..infinity)
We can distribute the summation and the tn into each entry and turn the series of matrices into a matrix of series. We get
exp(Jt) = (Σ (1/n!)λntn, 0, Σ (1/n!) nλn-1tn, Σ (1/n!) λntn)
Now use the definition of the Taylor series of the function eλt about t=0 and get
exp(Jt) = ( eλt, 0, t eλt, eλt).
(d) We have the initial value problem
x'=Jx, with x(0)=x0
I claim that the solution is
x= exp(Jt) x0.
Actually, this statement is true for all matrices J, but the proof is especially simple for the triangular matrix J given in this problem, J=(λ, 0, 1, λ). I will show that x' and Jx are equal to the same thing.
First,
x' = (exp(Jt) x0)' = d/dt (eλt, 0, t eλt, eλt) x0 = ( λ eλt, 0, λt eλt + eλt, λ eλt) x0
Second,
J x = (λ, 0, 1, λ)*(exp(Jt) x0) = (λ, 0, 1, λ)*(eλt, 0, t eλt, eλt) x0
= ( λ eλt, 0, λt eλt+ eλt, λ eλt) x0
Both sides of x'=Jx are equal to ( λ eλt, 0, λt eλt+ eλt, λ eλt) x0, so
x= exp(Jt) x0
is a solution to the equation. By the uniqueness theorem it is the only solution. qed