
Sam L H. answered 10/20/15
Tutor
New to Wyzant
Knowledgeable Accounting and Finance Tutor
First there is no division E mentioned in the problem so i presumed they mean division I. The answer that i arrived at is not option B) above, the answer that i have is E) none
Here is the detail:
The whole company had total sales of 200,000 and the 40% CM is 120,000. Division O had a CM of 9000 which is equal to 30% of sales (100%-70% variable expenses). So to arrive at the sales number for division O divide 9000 by .30= 30,000 in sales. Therefore Division I sales must be =200,000-30,000= 170,000, this is my answer. if anyone disagree with me please let me know.