Judah D. answered 05/27/23
Versatile Tutor Offering Expertise in Math and Physics
A good saying that comes along with proofs by induction is:
"Mathematical induction proves that we can climb as high as we like on a ladder, by proving that we can climb onto the bottom rung (the basis) and that from each rung we can climb up to the next one (the step)."
- Concrete Mathematics, Page 3
Let S(n) be the statement as follows for all 1 ≤ n ∈ ℕ:
S(n): √(2n)! < 2^n * n!
Here is a proof by induction on n.
Base Case: Show that S(n) is true for the smallest value of n, in this case 1.
S(1) : √(2(1))! < 2^(1) * (1)!
√2 < 2
Hence S(1) is clearly true since √2 < 2
Induction Step: Show that for every k ≥ 1, if S(k) is true, then S(k+1) also holds.
√(2k)! < 2^k * k!
(2k)! < 2^2k * (k!)^2 Square both sides
(2k+2)(2k+1)(2k)! < 2^2k * (2k+2)(2k+1)(k!)^2 multiply both sides by (2k+2)(2k+1)
(2k+2)(2k+1)(2k)! < 2^(2k+1) * (k+1)(2k+1)(k!)^2 Pull out a 2 from the (2k+2) and absorb into 2^2k
(2k+2)! < 2^(2k+2) * (k^2 +1.5k+0.5)(k!)^2
- foil out (k+1)(2k+1), pull out another 2, and put it into the exponent
(2k+2)! < 2^(2k+2) * [ (k+1)^2 - 0.5(k+1) ] (k!)^2
- Here I completed the square to get a (k+1)^2 out of the foiled out (2k+2)(2k+1) terms, It doesn't look pretty now but trust me...
(2k+2)! < 2^(2k+2) * [ (k+1)^2 ] (k!)^2
- Here we can drop the 0.5(k+1) term because it only diminishes the term in the brackets. That is, it only makes the term in the brackets smaller, so if we drop the diminishing term we know it will still remain larger than (2k+2)!
(2k+2)! < 2^(2k+2) * (k+1)!^2 Absorb the (k+1)^2 term into the factorial
√(2k+2)! < 2^(k+1) * (k+1)! Square root both sides
√(2(k+1))! < 2^(k+1) * (k+1)!
That is, statement S(k+1) also holds true.
Conclusion: Since both the base case and the induction step have been established as true, by mathematical induction the statement S(n) holds for all 1 ≤ n ∈ ℕ.
Note: sorry if I cluttered my answer with too much explanation... i wanted to walk through each step to make sure everything makes sense. Thanks for the fun problem! I haven't done a proof by induction in quite some time! Let me know if you have any issues or if you notice any mistakes :)
Judah D.
No problem! It is a tricky problem at first. I had to make multiple attempts to find the right trick to prove this statement. What I was able to notice was the left side of the inequality was √(2k)! which somehow needed to transform into √(2(k+1))! or √(2k+2)!. to make this transformation I knew that I needed to multiply the left side by (2k+2)(2k+1) since (n+1) * n! = (n+1)!. This way the (2k)! term would transform into (2k+2)!. After this multiplication the rest is just a lot of algebra (not everyones favorite, especially not mine). Proofs are fundamentally more difficult than usual math problems because you know the statement is true, you just need to find the right way to show that. For many problems this just requires a lot of trial and error. It can be discouraging, but I assure you it feels awesome to finally finish a proof and look back at its logical consistency and simplicity.08/17/23
Judah D.
I hope this answered your question! If you have any more do not hesistate to ask.08/17/23
Bibby B.
really sorry for my late response, but im confused how you knew to multiply the inequality by (2k+2)(2k+1). it isnt obvious to me at all, so i really want to know haha08/17/23