Vahan P. answered 04/04/22
Experienced high school math teacher and experienced musician
Two inverse functions f and g have the property f(g(x)) = x.
You can confirm this with the given functions.
f(x) = (4x - 3)/2
g(x) = (2x + 3)/4
f(g(x)) = (4((2x + 3)/4) - 3)/2 = ((2x + 3) - 3)/2 = 2x/2 = x.
Umer S.
So which of the options would it be f(g(x)) = 0 f(g(x)) = -1 f(g(x)) = 1 f(g(x)) = x04/04/22