
Joseph E. answered 01/17/21
Math PhD with a passion for teaching.
Continuing from where you left off:
(n2+1)/n3cos(πn)
We need to show that this converges to 0. It is a theorem that a sequence converges to 0 if and only if its absolute value converges to 0. As you noted, cos(πn) alternates between 1 and -1 for n an integer. Then its absolute value is always just 1.
So (n2+1)/n3cos(πn) converges to 0 if and only if (n2+1)/n3 converges to 0.
But (n2+1)/n3 = n2/n3 + 1/n3 = 1/n + 1/n3. The limit of a sum is the sum of the limits and these both tend to 0, so we are done.
Kara S.
Thnak you Joseph, thats really helpful :-)01/17/21