John S.

asked • 12/28/20

IFRS AND US GAAP (IAS 38)

Madison Company acquired a depreciable asset at the beginning of Year 1 at a cost of £12 million. At December 31, Year 1, Madison gathered the following information related to this asset:


Carrying amount (net of accumulated depreciation) £10 million

Fair value of the asset (net selling price) £7.5 million Sum of future cash flows from use of the asset £10 million

Present value of future cash flows from use of the asset £8 million

Remaining useful life of the asset 5 years





Required:

Determine the impact on Year 2 and Year 3 income from the depreciation and possible impairment of this equipment under (1) IFRS and (2) U.S. GAAP.


1 Expert Answer

By:

Kelsy F. answered • 01/15/21

Tutor
4.8 (19)

Enrolled Agent with a M.S in accounting-taxation for tutoring

John S.

Hi Thanks for the answer, i got the same answer!! for next time could you please explain or show full workings as for e.g in the comparing part under IFRS you just put 4,000,000 i see why you have done this, i also see you have shown it above but it would just be abit clearer to understand The following was how i calculated it: IFRS carrying amount = 10,000,000 Net selling price = 7,500,000 Dicounted future cash flows = 8,000,000 Value in use (larger amount from 2 numbers above) = 8,000,000 Impairment loss (10,000,000-8,000,000) = 2,000,000 US GAAP carrying amount = 10,000,000 Future cash flows = 10,000,000 no impairment = 0 Comparing the 2 IFRS YEAR 1- depreciation expense = 2,000,000 impairment loss = 2,000,000 year 2-6 depreciation expense =1,600,000 (8,000,000/5) US GAAP YEAR 1-6 depreciation expense = 2,000,000 THANK YOU FOR ANSWERING MY QUESTION !!!
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01/20/21

John S.

I did separate my answers but when i added the comment, its just turned it in to one big paragraph
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01/20/21

John S.

I would really appreciate if you could answer my other 2 questions I have posted, 1 is similar to this
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01/20/21

Kelsy F.

You are welcome John! I attempted to show my work above as well, but I think you understood the concepts. The purpose of this question appears to be differentiating between IFRS and GAAP calculations for impairment, and the effects of impairment under IFRS. The main things to note are that year 1 depreciation expense does not change due to the asset being considered impaired under IFRS. First you must calculate the depreciable base (carrying value or 10,000,000 less impairment of 2,000,000 = 8,000,000 depreciable base) then divide the post-impairment depreciable base by the remaining useful life since we are using straight line. 8,000,000/5 = 1,600,000. The year 1 depreciation does not change and remains at $2million in addition to the impairment loss of $2million. Since the asset is not considered impaired under GAAP, we just go along with straight line depreciation. I hope this clarifies things for you and I’ll check to see if I can find your questions later in the day.
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01/20/21

John S.

Thank you !! I really appreciate you for answering my question :)
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01/21/21

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