
Kelsy F. answered 01/15/21
Enrolled Agent with a M.S in accounting-taxation for tutoring
- Under IFRS 36 impairment is recognized when carrying value of an asset is less than the greater of net selling price or discounted cash flows (called recoverable cost), in this case the present value of future cash flows (recoverable cost) is less than the asset's carrying value so it is considered impaired under IFRS.
YEAR 1: Impairment of 2,000,000 (10,000,000 carrying value - 8,000,000) and 2,000,000 depreciation (12,000,000 less 10,000,000 carrying cost at end of year)
YEAR 2: 1,600,000 (8,000,000/5) depreciation
YEAR 3: 1,600,000 depreciation
- Under IFRS there would be a total reduction in income for the depreciation of 3.2 million for years 2 and 3.
2 Under GAAP, an asset is also considered impaired when its carrying value exceeds recoverable costs, however under GAAP recoverable cost is considered to be undiscounted future cash flows. In this case the carrying cost of 10,000,000 is equal to its recoverable cost of 10,000,000 or the sum of the future cash flows of the asset. The asset is not impaired under GAAP.
Depreciation would simply be the carrying value / useful life = 2,000,000
Comparing the two
Year 1
IFRS: 4,000,000
GAAP: 2,000,000
= 2,000,000 greater reduction in net income under IFRS
Years 2 & 3
IFRS: 1,600,000
GAAP: 2,000,000
= 400,000 greater reduction under GAAP for each year
John S.
I did separate my answers but when i added the comment, its just turned it in to one big paragraph01/20/21
John S.
I would really appreciate if you could answer my other 2 questions I have posted, 1 is similar to this01/20/21

Kelsy F.
You are welcome John! I attempted to show my work above as well, but I think you understood the concepts. The purpose of this question appears to be differentiating between IFRS and GAAP calculations for impairment, and the effects of impairment under IFRS. The main things to note are that year 1 depreciation expense does not change due to the asset being considered impaired under IFRS. First you must calculate the depreciable base (carrying value or 10,000,000 less impairment of 2,000,000 = 8,000,000 depreciable base) then divide the post-impairment depreciable base by the remaining useful life since we are using straight line. 8,000,000/5 = 1,600,000. The year 1 depreciation does not change and remains at $2million in addition to the impairment loss of $2million. Since the asset is not considered impaired under GAAP, we just go along with straight line depreciation. I hope this clarifies things for you and I’ll check to see if I can find your questions later in the day.01/20/21
John S.
Thank you !! I really appreciate you for answering my question :)01/21/21
John S.
Hi Thanks for the answer, i got the same answer!! for next time could you please explain or show full workings as for e.g in the comparing part under IFRS you just put 4,000,000 i see why you have done this, i also see you have shown it above but it would just be abit clearer to understand The following was how i calculated it: IFRS carrying amount = 10,000,000 Net selling price = 7,500,000 Dicounted future cash flows = 8,000,000 Value in use (larger amount from 2 numbers above) = 8,000,000 Impairment loss (10,000,000-8,000,000) = 2,000,000 US GAAP carrying amount = 10,000,000 Future cash flows = 10,000,000 no impairment = 0 Comparing the 2 IFRS YEAR 1- depreciation expense = 2,000,000 impairment loss = 2,000,000 year 2-6 depreciation expense =1,600,000 (8,000,000/5) US GAAP YEAR 1-6 depreciation expense = 2,000,000 THANK YOU FOR ANSWERING MY QUESTION !!!01/20/21