There is a difference in meaning when you make these sentences with or without the dative pronoun. Sometimes, the difference in meaning is minimal, and both sentences might as well be used interchangeably, However, in most cases, there would be a difference. For example, when you say "Ich wasche mir die Haende", then it's very clear that you are washing your own hands and not somebody else's hands. But when you say "Ich wasche die Haende", then you could be washing anybody's hands; it's not clear that you are washing your hands. This can be remedied by saying "Ich wasche meine Haende", but you need a pronoun indicating it's your hands. In case of the sentence "Ich habe mir das Bein gebrochen", "mir" is essential. The expression is "sich etwas brechen" (break one of your own bones), and it is very different from "etwas brechen" (break something). Therefore, "Ich breche mein Bein" almost sounds like you intentionally broke your leg, which wouldn't make any sense at all.
When to use possessive pronouns vs. dative pronoun + definite article?
German uses a reflexive dative pronoun and a regular definite article in many places where English would use a possessive pronoun. For example:
>I broke my leg.
**Ich habe mir das Bein gebrochen.**
>I wash my hands.
**Ich wasche mir die Hände.**
Is this as normalized in spoken German as in written? Would you *ever* say *Ich habe meine Hände gewaschen* or *Ich habe mein Bein gebrochen?*
I’m wondering how frequently the form with the dative pronoun has to be used. Should I say *Das Baby hat mir den Finger gebissen* or *Das Baby hat meinen Finger gebissen?* Likewise, *Ich kitzele seine Füße (z.B. die Füße des Babys)* or *Ich kitzele ihm die Füße?*
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