Asked • 04/16/19

Why absolute value in elasticities and marginal rate of substitution?

This is a point I find very confusing and very hard to justify to students. Depending on the books, one finds many different conventions regarding the sign of elasticities and marginal rate of substitution (MRS). Some define them taking absolute value, some don't, and one sometimes finds inconsistencies inside a single book or set of notes. My questions are : - To your knowledge, what is the most conventional stance regarding the use of absolute value in the definition of - Own-price elasticity - Cross-price elasticity - MRS - Is it mere convention or is there somewhat of a rational for taking absolute value in some/all/none of the cases?

2 Answers By Expert Tutors

By:

Lenny D. answered • 04/16/19

Tutor
4.8 (563)

Former Tufts Economics Professor and Wall Street Economist

Still looking for help? Get the right answer, fast.

Ask a question for free

Get a free answer to a quick problem.
Most questions answered within 4 hours.

OR

Find an Online Tutor Now

Choose an expert and meet online. No packages or subscriptions, pay only for the time you need.