Asked • 04/01/19

Is it possible to derive indifference curves given marshallian demand function?

In a two good world, will a marshallian demand function the likes of `D(p,m)` where p is the price of one good and m the income yield a utility function or indifference curve function? If so, how does one go about solving this?

1 Expert Answer

By:

Philip T. answered • 04/02/19

Tutor
4.9 (284)

Micro and Macro Economics made simple! Experienced Ivy League Tutor

Still looking for help? Get the right answer, fast.

Ask a question for free

Get a free answer to a quick problem.
Most questions answered within 4 hours.

OR

Find an Online Tutor Now

Choose an expert and meet online. No packages or subscriptions, pay only for the time you need.