
Philip T. answered 04/02/19
Micro and Macro Economics made simple! Experienced Ivy League Tutor
The short answer to your question is no.
Consumer Choice theory, and the optimization problem, requires us to examine 2 facets of the consumer problem:
(1) what bundle of goods are affordable? (these are denoted by the budget constraint, which is derived from the available income and the prices of goods)
(2) what bundle of goods are desirable? (these are denoted by the utility function for a consumer)
A given utility function for 2 goods (X, Y) might be of the form U = X0.5Y0.5 (if it is a Cobb Douglas utility function), or U = 2X + 3Y (if it is a perfect substitutes utility function). In both cases, we see utility is only a function of the quantity or X and Y, not the prices or incomes. An indifference curve is simply a map / graph of the combinations of X and Y that satisfy a given level of utility so this is not dependent on income or prices either.