Larry C. answered 11/30/18
Computer Science and Mathematics professional
Look at it from the opposite direction: how many shots must he take that his chance of having not made any of them drops to 0.01? Since these are considered Bernoulli trials, each shot either succeeds or fails and the probability of failure is 0.75. So, it would take x shots to drop the probability of missing all of them to 0.01 or
0.01 = 0.75x
You can then solve for x, which will also be the number of shots needed to have a 0.99 probability of succeeding at least once (since the probability of missing all x shots + probability of succeeding at least once after x shots = 1)