Chakravorty B.

asked • 03/31/18

Is there any logical proof or derivativation for area of a square

Area of a square =a2
 
How was this formula derived ? 

Nick W.

The question of "how it was derived" is a historical question.  The question in the title is different. I'll try to give a sketch of an answer to the question in the title. It will be technical because its a deep question involving measure theory. You have to first clarify what you mean by "area". Lets say you take your definition of "area" to be a function that assigns a magnitude (some nonnegative real number) to (certain) subsets of the plane. And lets you take for granted that the function has to have certain uncontroversial properties: like that it has to be additive on disjoint sets (if two sets don't overlap then the area of their union should be the sum of their areas), it has to be "translation invariant" (i.e. if you rigidly push a set around the plane, its area doesnt change), and a few other very anodyne assumptions. Then its possible to prove rigorously that this notion of area must be the one that assigns a^2 to a square of side-length a (actually it has to be some scalar multiple of that area). What I've just described is called the "uniqueness of the Haar measure." In this case, its the fact that the Haar measure for the plane (which is the a priori notion of area I described) is the same as the Lebesgue measure (which is the particular notion of area that assigns a^2 to a square of side-length a).
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03/31/18

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