Pratik L.

asked • 04/04/16

Probability & Statistics

1. A family has n > 0 children with probability αp^n, where α≤p/(1-p). (a) What is the probability that the family has no children? (b) If each child is equally likely to be a boy or a girl (independently of each other), what proportion of families consists of k boys and any number of girls?

1 Expert Answer

By:

Arnold F. answered • 04/04/16

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