
Caleb M. answered 12/19/14
Tutor
5.0
(102)
Mathematics Tutor
Use the ratio test. We want
lim n-> infinity |an+1/an| <1
where an= 2n(x-2)n/(n+2)!
So we have
an+1/an = 2n+1 (x-2)n+1 / (n+3)! * (n+2)!/ ( 2n (x-2)n )
Note that (n+3)! shows up because we have ((n+1)+2)! = (n+1+2)!= (n+3)!
Now we need to simply, I'll group the terms a bit (though it's hard to type on here)
2n+1/2n * (x-2)n+1/(x-2)n * (n+2)!/(n+3)!
Now observe that
2n+1=2n2
and
(n+3)!=(n+3)(n+2)(n+1)n!
(n+2)!=(n+2)(n+1)n!
So that we can cancel a bit, I'll trust you to do that to get
2 * (x-2) * 1/(n+3) = (x-2) * 2/(n+3)
Now we take the limit as n tends to infinity. But notice as n gets very large, 2/(n+3) gets very small (the limit is 0) so we have
lim n to infinity |an+1/an|= lim n to infinity |(x-2)*2/(n+3) |= |x-2| * lim n to infinity |2/(n+3)| = |x-2| * 0 =0
We need to check for which x this is <1. But notice the limit is 0 no matter what x we choose and 0<1 always! So we can choose any x so that the radius of convergence is infinite. To see an example where this was not zero, suppose the limit was 1. Then we would want
|x-2|* 1<1
|x-2|<1
So that the radius of convergence is 1 and the interval of convergence would be
-1 < x-2 < 1
1 < x < 3
Then just check the end points; that is, the cases where x=1 and x=3 and check for convergence there. Suppose the series did not converge for x=1 but did converge for x=3, then we would have the interval
1 < x <= 3