
Ali B.
asked 01/18/20Consider a representative consumer with the following lifetime utility:
Consider a representative consumer with the following lifetime utility:
U(C0,C1)=C-C20/2 +0.5E(C1-C21 /2)
Consumer's income Y0 at time t = 0 equals 10 with probability 1, while income Y1 may be equal to either 40 (optimistic scenario) or 0 (pessimistic scenario). The probabilities for the optimistic and pessimistic scenarios to occur are, respectively, 25% and 75%. Interest rate is normalized to zero.
a) Compute the permanent income Yp=0.5Y0+EY1
b) Show that C0=Yp
c) that C0=Yp is often referred to as the situation of no precautionary saving. What does that mean and does that make sense? Explain.
d) M. Kimball, in his seminal paper Precautionary savings in the small and in the large" (Econometrica, 1990) defined a measure of consumer's prudence given by -u’"(C)C/ u"(C), where u is the instantaneous utility function of consumer's time-separable preference. Does this measure make sense to you? Explain (hint: compute this measure for the consumer in this problem and relate the result to your answers to parts (b) - (c)).
1 Expert Answer

Lenny D. answered 01/18/20
Global Macroeconomic Expert
Hi Ali,
I saw you IS-LM Question and tried to post a video answer for it. It got lost in the ether. I built a great spreadsheet for playing with IS and LM curves.
anyway, lets' look at this. Y0 is known. E(Y1) = .25*40 +.75*0 =10
So Yp = .5Y0 +EY1) = 15
Note MU= 0 when C=1 and if C0>Sqrt(2) U is negative at t=0. The only relevant domain for C0 or E(C1) is the interval {0,21/2 } There is something wrong with the
way this is written. Think about it. Your Utility would be maximized if you consumed 1 toady, saved 1 for tomorrow and gave everything else away today and if you made anything tomorrow given that away.
If you can come back with the correct form I would be happy to walk you through it.
I would also be happy to walk you through the second approximation IS-LM Framework and all the way through Third approximation models, growth models and open economy macro.
Best,
Lenny
MU(C0)=1-C0 MU(C1) = (1-C1)/2 MRS =2(1-Co)/(1-C1)

Lenny D.
You are clearly trying to have some form of quadratic utility which implies Increasing absolute risk aversion. Kimball's measure smell's like the elasticity of Absolute risk aversion with respect to C.01/19/20

Lenny D.
search"answered questions" on this site under Macroeconomics for Hicksian IS LM and you'll see my answer to your other question01/19/20

Lenny D.
Have you been able to come up with a better formulation of U(C0,C1) which doesn't violate no-satiation. With this, Expected utility is maximized when C0, C1 = 1 this occurs when C0 =1 and C1 = S = 1 Y0-c0-S =8 which you give away and whatever y1 becomes you give that away as well.01/21/20
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Lenny D.
This is the link to the answer to your IS LM question https://www.wyzant.com/resources/answers/737559/hicksian-is-lm-framework-and-conditions-of-policy-effectiveness01/19/20