Timothy L. answered 10/16/15
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Applied Mathematician with a PhD and 10+ years of tutoring experience
tan(x+y)=(tan(x)+tan(y))/(1-tan(x)tan(y))
tan(pi/4+x/2)=(tan(pi/4)+tan(x/2))/(1-tan(pi/4)tan(x/2))=(1+tan(x/2))/(1-tan(x/2)). There are many different ways to show that the right hand side is equivalent to sec(x)+tan(x). I show a proof using well known double angle formulas.
Rewrite (1+tan(x/2))/(1-tan(x/2)) as (1+(sin(x/2)/cos(x/2)))/(1-(sin(x/2)/cos(x/2))).
Now multiply top and bottom of (1+(sin(x/2)/cos(x/2)))/(1-(sin(x/2)/cos(x/2))) by cos(x/2). Then you will get
(cos(x/2)+sin(x/2))/((cos(x/2)-sin(x/2)).
Again multiply top and bottom of (cos(x/2)+sin(x/2))/((cos(x/2)-sin(x/2)) by (cos(x/2)+sin(x/2)) to get (cos^2(x/2)+sin^2(x/2)+2cos(x/2)(sin(x/2))/(cos^2(x/2)-sin^2(x/2)).
Now cos^2(x/2)+sin^2(x/2)=1 and we know by well known double angle formulas that
2cos(x/2)(sin(x/2))=sin(x) and (cos^2(x/2)-sin^2(x/2))=cos(x).
So (cos^2(x/2)+sin^2(x/2)+2cos(x/2)(sin(x/2))/(cos^2(x/2)-sin^2(x/2))=(1+sin(x))/(cos(x)=sec(x)+tan(x)
This completes the proof.