Is it correct that the 'Mandarin' language has it's origins in Portuguese?

Answer 1

1. The amazing fact that in the 18th century it was discovered:

There are three main language families:

1. Indo-European (Includes English,Latin),Portuguese belongs to
2. Sino-Tibetan (Includes Chinese,Mandarin)
3. Afro-Asiatic (Includes Arabic)

Try to this link on some interesting more about language family tree: https://www.angmohdan.com/the-root-of-all-human-languages/

Answer 2

According to Encyclopædia Britannica, a book titled "Contributions of Romance Languages to Current Linguistic Theory" by Deborah L. Arteaga, and a book titled "The Sinitic Languages: A Contribution to Sinological Linguistics" by Mieczysław Jerzy Künstler, the contemporary Portuguese language stems from the Romance Languages group, found in Europe. Mandarin is part of the Sinitic Language group, which originated in Asia. Therefore, Mandarin has no origins in Portuguese.