Kyle H.

asked • 06/18/16

If a 44% chance to win something pays a ratio of 2:5 what should a 3% chance to win payout?

Exactly what the question says, Thanks!

1 Expert Answer

By:

Bryan P. answered • 06/18/16

Tutor
4.9 (470)

Math, Science & Test Prep

Kyle H.

Bryan,
 
It sort of helps. I would just like to clarify something.
 
Yes I want it to proportionately increase.
So if I bet 5 dollars on a 44% chance to win and get 7 back (original 5, + 2) then if I would have to bet 110 dollars to only win 113 (original 110, + 3) back?
 
i don't think I fully understand because that seems extremely outrageous.
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06/19/16

Bryan P.

That is confusing. I decided that they must have turned the numbers around. But I can't be sure. Odds and payouts are presented in different ways depending on where you are and who's in control. My assumption was that a $2 bet get you a $5 payout. It doesn't make sense any other way.
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06/19/16

Kyle H.

Okay so let's say that it's 5:7? I guess that's how I should have out it originally. Sorry!
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06/19/16

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