
Grigori S. answered 08/09/13
Certified Physics and Math Teacher G.S.
Let F(s) be the Laplace transform of y(t). Thus
Ly(t) = ∫0∞ y(t) e-stdt (1)
Laplace transforms of derivatives can be found using integration by parts. We have
F1(s) = L y'(t) = ∫0∞ y'(t) e-stdt = ∫0∞ e-st d y(t) =
y(t) e-st (from 0 to ∞) +s ∫0∞ y(t) e-st dt
or
Ly'(t) = sF(s) -1 (2)
after using initial condition for y(t) and the fact that e-st = 0 for t ↔∞.
By following the same steps we can show that fhe Laplace transform for the secpnd derivative
F2(s) = Ly''(t) = sF1(s) + 1 = s[sF(s) - 1] -(-1) (3)
The last term in (3) is just y'(0) = -1. By taking Laplace transforms of all terms in the left side of
your equation and making use of expressions from (1) to (3), we obtain:
F(s) (s2 - s -6) - s + 2 = 0 or F(s) = (s -2)/(s2 -s -6) (4)
The denominator can be factored:
s2 - s - 6 = (s+2)(s-3)
Thus we have
F(s) = (s-2)/[s+2)(s-3)]= (1/5) (s-2)[ 1/(s-3) - 1/(s+2)] (5)
If you notice that
(s-2)/(s-3) = (s-2-1+1)/(s-3) = 1 + 1/(s-3)
and
(s-2)/(s+2) = (s-2 +4 -4)/(s+2) = 1 - 4/(s+2)
then you will come up with the following expression for F(s):
F(s) = (1/5) [1/(s-3) + 4/(s+2)] (6)
From previous tutoring sections we already know that the Laplace transform of e at is 1/(s-a)
where a = 3 and a = -2 in in this problem. Thus, taking inverse transforms we will come up with
the final answer:
y(t) = (1/5)( e3t + 4e-2t)