Aaron R.

asked • 02/04/18

Find the limit as x approaches 0 for the function g(x) given -1<= | ((x^2)g(x) / (1-cosx)^2)| <= 1 using Squeeze Theorem

Hello! I was wondering how I could solve this problem. I'm not quite sure what are needed to be put on both left and right side of the equation ( -1 <= and <= 1).

1 Expert Answer

By:

Alexandr K. answered • 02/04/18

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5 (7)

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Aaron R.

May I ask what you mean about "multiply through?" 
 
will it turn out to be 
 
-x^2 / (1-cosx)^2 <= ((x^2)(g(x)) / (1-cosx)^2) <= x^2 / (1-cosx)^2 ? 
 
Thank you
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02/05/18

Alexandr K.

Treat the boundary like any equation, what you do to one part, do the same to all the others, including the middle part.
 
-1 <= ((x^2)g(x)/(1 - cosx)^2) <= 1
 
Multiply each part by (1 - cosx)^2
 
-(1 - cosx)^2 <= (x^2)g(x) <= (1 - cosx)^2
 
Just curious, have you done L'Hopital's rule yet?
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02/05/18

Aaron R.

Oh. Then I'll divide both sides with x^2?
 
They're asking us to answer this without L'Hopital's yet, and nope we have not discussed that lesson.
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02/05/18

Alexandr K.

If you were using L'Hopital's, then yes you would just divide through by x^2 and then apply the squeeze theorem. But the limits at the ends would end up being in the indeterminant form 0/0.
 
Was the function g(x) defined at all in this problem?
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02/05/18

Alexandr K.

Okay, this is a bit of a tricky problem, it almost stumped me for a second.
First, we will multiply through to get |g(x)| in between two other functions.
 
We get -((1 - cosx)^2)/x^2 <= |g(x)| <= ((1 - cosx)^2)/x^2
 
Then we apply squeeze theorem by taking the limits as x approaches 0 of the ends.
 
lim ((1 - cosx)^2)/x^2 as x -> 0
 
This is a tricky limit without L'Hopital's Rule. I took some time and solved it, give it a shot. Hint: You have to use the multiplication property of limits and you have to use the squeeze theorem again on one of the new limits.
 
Let me know if you still can't figure it out.
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02/05/18

Aaron R.

Funny though cause that's all they mentioned - the one I typed in the header. No definition for g(x) at all. 
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02/05/18

Alexandr K.

Granted this is not an easy problem, but it's certainly do-able. Read my above comment and give it ananoth shot. Let me know if you get completely lost  
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02/05/18

Aaron R.

so I got a limit of -1 for the left side I'm not quite sure if what I did is allowed. 
 
First, I squared the (1 - cosx) so I got - (1-2cosx+ cos^2(X)) / x^2
 
Then, changed 1 -cos^2(X) to sin^2(x) , so -sin^2(X) -2cosx / x^2
 
then manipulated it in a way that I chopped them into pieces so I got 
 
(- 1/1) ( ( sinx/x ) ( sin x/x) ) - ( ( 2/1) (cosx / x) ( 1 / x)) 
 
so it ends up as (-1/1) ( (1)(1))  - ( (2) (0) (1/x) ) =  -1(1-0) = -1 
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02/05/18

Aaron R.

positive 1 rather
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02/05/18

Alexandr K.

Very close, but you made a mistake converting trig identities. You have 1 + Cos^2(x), not 1 minus.
 
You're on the right track though, instead of multiplying out the square, try taking out the squares outside the limit, then multiply the inside of the limit by the conjugate of 1 - cosx. See where that takes you. Give it another shot.
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02/05/18

Aaron R.

I got 0 as the limit 
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02/05/18

Alexandr K.

You got it. So by the squeeze theorem, the limit of g(x) should be zero as well. Good job! 
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02/05/18

Aaron R.

It was fun. Thanks! I finally got the procedure in answering these types of problems. :)
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02/05/18

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