Clive T. answered 01/31/16
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High School & University Math & Programming Tutor
Yes, this can be proven by induction:
Foundation step: n=1
When n=1, the equality is obvious: (a-1ba)1 = a-1ba = a-1b1a
Induction step: suppose that for n=k this equality is correct, let's prove that it is also correct for n=k+1:
(a-1ba)k+1 =(a-1ba)k(a-1ba)
=(a-1bka)(a-1ba) use the equality when n=k
=a-1bkaa-1ba
=a-1bkba
=a-1bk+1a
So the equality when n=k+1 is proven to be correct.
By induction, we can conclude that for all integers n>=1, the equality is correct.