Max W.

asked • 04/17/23

Why is "if A then B" true whenever A is false?

We know that the proposition "if A then B" is evaluated to be false only when A is true but B is false; it is true for all other cases, most notably when A is false regardless of whether B is true or false.


Can someone shed some light on the underlined part—is this a 'natural' result (i.e. something that follows logic and the common sense of language, or something like that) or is it just a 'convention', or arrangement (that is, "let's take/define it as this ...")?

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