Uladzimir H.

asked • 09/08/16

Does tan^2(x)*sin^2(x) equal to tan^2(x) - sin^2(x).

Because if you take: tan^2(x) + 1 = sec^2(x) then tan^2(x) = sec^2(x) - 1. And if we input that into the original then sec^2(x) * sin^2(x) - sin^2(x) or tan^2(x) - sin^2(x) which seems weird

2 Answers By Expert Tutors

By:

Neal D. answered • 09/08/16

Tutor
4.9 (1,417)

Education Made Understandable

Uladzimir H.

That seems like a good strategy. Thank you for the advise.
Report

09/08/16

Arturo O. answered • 09/08/16

Tutor
5.0 (66)

Experienced Physics Teacher for Physics Tutoring

Uladzimir H.

Thank you. I just thought my math was wrong somewhere since multiplying them together and subtracting didn't seem like it would yield the same answer.
Report

09/08/16

Still looking for help? Get the right answer, fast.

Ask a question for free

Get a free answer to a quick problem.
Most questions answered within 4 hours.

OR

Find an Online Tutor Now

Choose an expert and meet online. No packages or subscriptions, pay only for the time you need.